Hi,
I moved into my boyfriend's house in 1997 (period 7), shortly before our wedding. The house remained with only him as "owner" as per land title.
In 2005, he added me to the title, making the house "joint ownership": it now belongs to the two of us. As the house was already paid for, no financing was necessary.
My question is:
When the land ownership documents (with the house in it) changed, although there was not money exchange between my husband and me, did the house become a "period 8"?
Thank you!